Tuesday, August 24, 2010

Hemorrhage and Thrombosis

Hemorrhage and Thrombosis
COAGULATION BASICS
1. Overview
A. Primary hemostasis
1) Platelet (a) adhesion, (b) activation, (c) aggregation
B. Secondary hemostasis
1) Activation of plasma coagulation (form fibrin)
a) Extrinsic pathway (via tissue factor)
b) Intrinsic pathway (subendothelium or foreign contact)
c) Common pathway
2) Inhibition of systemic clotting
a) Natural anticoagulants (AT III, Protein C & S)
b) Fibrinolytic system, i.e. Plasmin (degrades fibrin(ogen))
C. Other reactions
1) Complement activation (increased permeability, cell lysis)
2) Kinin generation (vascular dilation, increased permeability)
2. Platelet Function
A. Contact
1) With subendothelium after endothelial injury
2) With proteins adsorbed onto synthetic surfaces
B. Adhesion
1) Via attachment mechanisms i.e. Glycoprotein Ib/IX
2) (GP Ib/IX) receptor
C. Activation
1) Begins as platelets spread with a conformational change
2) Release TxA2, ADP, serotonin, (PF4, BTG)
D. Aggregation
1) ADP induced change in GpIIb/IIIa receptor permits binding of adhesive proteins, like fibrinogen, between platelets
PHARMACOLOGY
3. Anticoagulants
A. Heparin
1) Glycosaminoglycan, MW 3K - 100K
2) Acts by binding enzyme AT III
a) (AT III inhib's IIa,Xa,IXa,XIa,XIIa)
3) Half life is 60-90 minutes
4) Monitored with aPTT or ACT
5) Complications: bleeding; HIT => thrombosis, "white clot"
6) (Ab versus Hep-PF4 complex); osteoporosis
4. Alternatives to heparin (future)
A. Hirudin (Hirulog, synthetic analog)
1) From leeches, direct inhibitor of thrombin
2) Does not require ATIII
3) Prolongs TT, aPTT, PT, and ACT
B. Ancrod
1) From venom of Malayan pit viper
C. Others
5. Warfarin
A. Acts as Vitamin K antagonist
1) (Vitamin K required for Fx II, VI, IX, X; Prot C,S)
B. Half-life is 36 to 42 hours
C. Monitored w/ INR = Pt. PT / Control PT
D. Reversed w/FFP (immediate); Vit K (8-24 hrs)
E. Complications
1) Bleeding, skin necrosis (Protein C & S deficiency), fetal abnormalities
6. Antiplatelet Agents
A. Aspirin
1) Inhibits cyclo oxygenase (rate-limiting enzyme for PG's)
a) Reduces TxA2 from platelets (causes aggregation)
b) (Low dose inhibits Plt cyclo oxygenase but not endothelium)
2) Irreversible inhibition for Plt lifetime (7-10 days)
B. Ticlopidine (ASA substitute)
1) Blocks fibrin-GpIIb/IIIa interaction
2) Onset slow, 2-3 days
C. Dipyridamole
1) Inhibits Plt adhesion
D. IV Dextran (40 - MW 40,000 daltons)
1) Decreases Plt-vascular endothelial interaction
2) Decreases von Willebrand factor
7. Hemostatic Agents
A. Protamine
1) Basic protein, binds heparin
2) 1 mg protamine = 100 U heparin
3) Adverse reactions
a) Transient systemic hypotension
(1) Related to infusion rate, total dose
b) Anaphylaxis - pulmonary hypertension, systemic hypotension, bradycardia
(1) (Risk factors - prior exposure, DM's/NPH)
8. Aprotinin
A. Mechanism: proteolytic enzyme inhibitor
1) Inhibits fibrinolysis, kinin activation, platelet activation
B. Benefits
1) Decreased blood loss, decreased systemic response to CPB
C. Risks
1) Prothrombotic effects, renal failure (?)
2) Anaphylaxis with re-exposure (cutaneous testing, predose)
D. Usage guidelines
1) Patient risk should influence use - high risk patients (reoperations, long procedures, coagulopathy, need to avoid transfusions)
2) ACT monitoring
E. Other agents
1) Amicar (Epsilon-amino caproic acid)
2) Desmopressin (DDAVP)
ANTICOAGULATION FOR CPB
9. Heparin
A. Standard initial dose = 300 U/kg
B. Maintain ACT > 300-350 (>300?)
C. Monitor with ACT
1) (or direct Heparin concentrations)
D. Redose to maintain therapeutic level
1) 100 U/kg every 60 - 90 minutes (approx.)
2) Use dose-response curve
E. Protamine for heparin reversal
1) Estimate heparin present (dose response curve)
2) Give 1.1 - 1.5 mg protamine : 100 U heparin
3) Confirm reversal to baseline
HEMOSTASIS WITH CPB
10. Basic Considerations with Cardiopulmonary Bypass (CPB)
A. Cardiopulmonary bypass leads to:
1) Activation of clotting cascades
2) Activation of fibrinolytic system
3) Platelet activation and removal
4) Kinin system activation
5) Complement activation
B. Results in hemostatic derangement
C. Results in systemic inflammatory responses
11. Blood Conservation Options
A. Cell saver recycling
B. Hemoconcentration of excess CPB blood
C. Reinfusion of shed blood from chest tubes
1) (Consider time, volume, infection hazard)
D. Prevention/reversal of bleeding diathesis
1) Optimization of heparin/protamine use
2) Autologous plasma, fresh whole blood
3) Aprotinin (Trasylol)
4) Epsilon-amino caproic acid (Amicar)
E. Heparinzed CPB circuits
1) More biocompatable, more thrombo resistant
D. Autologous blood donations (with erythropoietin)
HEMORRHAGE
12. Post-CPB
A. Consider
1) Surgical bleeding
2) Heparin excess
a) Incomplete neutralization; reinfusion of anticoagulated blood; heparin rebound
3) Clotting cascade procoagulant deficiency
5) Platelet dysfunction or thrombocytopenia
4) DIC, depleted fibrinogen (preop thrombolytics)
B. Exploration (< 3 - 5%)
1) >500/h x1 hr; >400/hr x 2 hrs; >300/hr x 3 hrs;
2) >1000 total in 4 hrs; >1200 total in 5 hrs
THROMBOSIS
13. CABG Graft Patency
A. Vein patency rate = 75-90% at 1 year
B. Technique is important
1) Avoid endothelial injury
C. Antiplatelet therapy
1) ASA, before or within POD 1 to > 1 year
2) Ticlopidine if allergic to ASA, or with coronary endarterectomy
3) Persantine, likely adds nothing
14. Prosthetic Valves
A. Mechanical valves
1) T-E rate = 2 - 4% per patient-year
2) Coumadin, INR=2.5-3.5, any position
a) (ACCP/NHLBI consensus opinion)
b) Bleeding complication rate = 2-3% per patient-year
3) Adding anti-platelet drug => decreased T-E, increased bleeding
a) Reserved for T-E despite therapeutic coumadin
3) Bioprosthetic valves
a) T-E: greatest 6-12 wks post-op then 2% per patient-year
b) Coumadin, INR=2-3 x 3 months (Opt for AVR)
c) With large, LA, LA clot, prior CVA - extend x 3-12 mos
4) Valve thrombosis
a) Thrombolytics emerging as front-line therapy
15. CAD
A. Acute MI
1) Heparin => decreased LV thrombus/embolism
a) Especially large (anterior) MI's, LV dysfunction
2) Coumadin - possibly beneficial
B. Unstable angina
1) Heparin + ASA
THROMBOSIS - DVT
16. General
A. Risk factors (Virchow's triad)
1) Stasis - immobility, surgery, CHF/atrial fibrillation, obesity
2) Hypercoagulable states, BCP's, malignancy
3) Vein injury
B. 48% incidence after CABG
C. Prophylaxis
1) Mechanical, SQ Heparin
2) (ASA, Persantine - ineffective)
17. Therapy
A. Distal DVT - low risk for pulmonary embolism
B. Proximal DVT - Anticoagulate
1) Heparin => Warfarin (INR 2-3) x 3-6 mos
2) IVC filter if anticoagulation contraindicated or ineffective
PULMONARY EMBOLISM
18. Incidence
A. 630,000/year with 200,000 deaths/year
B. Origin
1) DVT (above calf), tumor, foreign body
C. Pathophysiology
!) Combination of mechanical and reflex effects
2) Cardiodynamic effects, cyanosis, pulmonary vasoconstriction
D. Pathologic sequelae
1) Most resolve spontaneously
2) May lead to pulmonary infarction
19. Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolism
A. Clinical
1) SOB, tachycardia, increased P2
2) Classic hemoptysis, pleural rub, S3/4, cyanosis - 1/4 of patients
3) Signs & symptoms of DVT - 1/3 of patients
B. Examinations
1) CxR: normal +/- decreased vascularity (Westermark's sign)
2) ECG: dysrhythmia, ST depression, T-inversion (III,AVF,V1,V4-5)
3) V:Q scanning
4) Pulmonary arteriography
20. Management
A. Anticoagulation
1) Heparin x 8-10 days (until DVT adherent)
2) Coumadin x 6 weeks-6 months
B. Thrombolytic therapy
C. Percutaneous extraction
D. Surgical management
1) IVC Interruption
a) Anticoag contraindicated, recurrent pulmonary emboli on anticoagulation, multiple small pulmonary emboli, pulmonary hypertension, after pulmonary embolectomy
E. Pulmonary embolectomy
1) Indications: persistent hypotension, hypoxia despite medical Rx
PULMONARY EMBOLECTOMY
21. Indication for operation
A. Hypotension, hypoxia, despite medical therapy (O2, anticoagulation, inotropes)
B. Operation
1) Median sternotomy, cardiopulmonary bypass, bicaval cannulation, pulmonary artery exploration, lung compression
C. Results
1) 25% mortality (major cause - cardiac complications)
EXTENDED OUTLINE
Hemorrhagic and Thrombotic Complications of Cardiac Surgery
1. History
A. 1953 - Gibbon - -first use of CPB for open heart surgery in a human - screen oxygenator
B. Early screen, bubble, and disc oxygenators were traumatic to blood à frequent bleeding diatheses
2. Pre-op hemotsatic disorders
A. Personal/family history and PE are most important tools for identifying a bleeding diathesis
B. Hereditary bleeding disorders
1) Hemophilia
a) X-linked recessive
b) A = Factor VIII deficiency - tx= factor VIII concentrates
c) B = Factor IX deficiency - tx=prothrombin complex or FIX
d) Factor XI - less common
e) aPTT prolonged, PT, platelet (plt) fxn, bleeding time (BT) are normal
2) von Willebrand’s Disease
a) Most common inherited bleeding disorder
b) von Willebrand’s factor stabilizes FVII essential for plt fxn
c) Mucocutaneous bleeding and bruising
d) Prolonged bleeding time, impaired plt aggregation to ristocetin
e) Frequently a prolonged aPTT
3) Treatment
a) A (FVIII deficiency )-FVIII concentrates
b) B (FIX deficiency) - prothrombin complex or FIX
c) Emergency - FFP or cryoprecipitate (for FVIII or vWf deficiency)
4) “Acquired hemophilia” - autoantibodies to FVIII
C. Acquired bleeding disorders
1) Plt dysfunction 2° to abnormal heart valves or assist devices
a) BT helpful
b) Plt transfusions will only be transiently helpful
c) Plt transfusion after discontinuation of CPB
2) Congenital cyanotic ht dz
a) Impaired plt aggregation in 14% in acyanotic CHD, 38% cyanotic
b) More profound with ­ hypoxemia and hemoconcentration
c) Hepatic synthesis of clotting factors may be impaired
d) Phlebotomy and hemodilution to Hct 50-60% improves plt number and fxn
3) Drugs
a) Most common cause of impaired hemostasis in cardiac surgery
b) Anticoagulants
(1) Coumadin - hold for 1-2d pre-op, give Vit K or FFP
(2) Heparin - response may vary after pre-op heparin
c) Drugs that affect plts
(1) ASA
(a) Increases post-op blood loss
(b) D/C 5-7days pre-op
(c) Prolonged BT - correct w/8-12U plts
d) Fibrinolytics
(1) tPA, urokinase, streptokinase
(2) Can reduce fibrinogen levels below safe (100mg/dl)
(3) FDP’s interfere w/plt fxn
(4) Heparin can compound the effect
4) Renal, hepatic failure and disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
a) Uremia
(1) Defect in plt fxn due to plasma factors and anemia
(2) vWf-plt interacions impaired
(3) Plt transfusions ineffective due to uremic plasma
(4) Tx= correct anemia, dialysis, cryo (for vWf), DDAVP
b) Hepatic insufficiency
(1) Impaired synthesis of clotting factors (esp. vit K dependent - II,VII,IX,X)
(2) Tx= vit K if PT prolonged, plts if thrombocytopenic
3. Effects of cardiopulmonary bypass on hemostasis
A. Initial events of blood-surface interactions
1) Adsorption of fibrinogen and other plasma proteins to foreign surface is initial event
2) Contact activation of factor XII (intrinsic pathway)
3) Platelet adherence, release of cytoplasmic granules, thromboxane A-2
4) Contact activation initiates complement cascade and kallikrein/kinin system
5) Decreased velocity from hemodilution may ß damage to formed elements in blood, ß net blood loss, improve capillary perfusion
6) Frothing, high shear rates, and turbulence in pump damage formed elements àhemolysis, plt activation
7) Bubble oxygenator (blood-gas)contributes significantly to impaired hemostasis after 2-3 h. total bypass time
8) Intracardiac suction, “pump sucker”
B. Dynamics of plasma coagulation during CPB
1) Significant amounts of plasma proteins are not lost in extracorporeal circuit
2) Though diluted (£50%), clotting factor levels remain adequate
3) Prolonged clotting times post-op correlate poorly w/bleeding
4) Fibrinolysis
a) ??responsible for derangements of clotting tests early post-op
b) Activated plasmin degrades fibrin and fibrinigen
c) FDP’s act as anticoagulants
d) Aprotinin (see below)
C. Platelet dynamics during CPB
1) Number
a) ¯ to 40-50% baseline in 1st 10-15 min, then stabilizes
(1) “Passivation” of foreign surfaces after initial exposure
(2) Reduced plt adhesiveness
b) Rarely < 75,000/mL
c) Plt ct returns to normal 3-5d post-op (?sequestration in liver)
d) Microembolus formation contributes to platelet consumption
2) Function - substantially altered
a) Plasma levels of Tx A2, plt-specific proteins rise at onset of CPB
b) Plt stores of ADP & ATP depleted
c) Fxn returns to normal 3-5d post-op
d) Clot retraction impaired by heparin
(1) High concentrations of heparin impair vWf-platelet binding
(2) Reduction in clot retraction correlates w/post-op bleeding
e) Hypothermia, plasmin, other proteases
f) Neutrophil activation by surface glycoprotein (GMP-140 or P-selectin)
g) Attempts to inhibit plt activation during CPB (ASA, dextran) à excessive hemorrhage
4. Conduct of cardiopulmonary bypass
A. Heparin
1) Heterogenous family of glycosaminoglycans, not protein (6,000-20,000 dalton)
2) Accelerates by 2,500-fold the neutralization of thrombin by antithrombin III (ATIII)
3) Affects factors IX, X, XI, XII, activation of heparin Cofactor II, inhibition of smooth muscle proliferation, cytoprotective
4) Source of heparin (porcine gut mucosa or bovine lung) has little effect on anticoagulation, but long-term bovine lung heparin more frequently associated w/HIT
5) Platelet factor 4 is an anti-heparin compound
6) Monitoring
a) ACT or equivalent whole-blood clotting time at least q1h - maintain 300-350 sec
7) Heparin rebound - coagulopathy and increased clotting times
a) Pathogenesis not understood - ?protein-bound heparin unavailable to protamine
b) Tx=protamine
c) FFP will not reverse effects of residual heparin
B. Protamine- the sole effective heparin antidote
1) Small, highly positively charged protein, binds heparin
2) Derived from fish sperm
3) 1mg protamine /100U heparin (0.6-0.7 per Dr. Hurst)
4) Toxicity
a) Excess can have anticoagulant effect - overrated
b) Myocardial depression
c) Vasodilitation
5) Heparin-protamine complexes - mediators of inflammation and anaphylaxis - granulocytopenia, pulm sequestration of leukocytes, vasodilitation
6) Allergic reaction (rare) - pulm edema, hypoxia, hypotension more common in DM exposed to NPH
5. Perioperative adjuncts to hemostasis and blood conservation
A. Intra-op (topical agents)
1) Bovine thrombin - platelet activation and direct fibrinogen clotting-neutral pH
2) Oxidized cellulose(Surgicell) - contact activation of coagulation cascade - surface for fibrin polymerization
3) Microcrystalline bovine collagen (Avitene, Instat)-plt activation and adhesion
4) Hemostatic glues
a) Cyanoacrylate
b) Fibrin glue=cryo (for fibrinogen)+bovine thrombin
B. Autotransfusion
1) Pre-op phlebotomy and reinfusion post-bypass
2) Cellsaver - washes red cells (no plts or clotting factors)
3) Shed mediastinal blood - no study has shown reduction in use of banked, homologous blood
C. DDAVP
1) Vasopressin analog
2) Transiently increases vWf and FVIII
3) Probably only useful w/impaired vWf-dependent hemostasis (low vWf, drugs, plt receptor)
D. Aprotinin
1) Protease inhibitor from bovine lung
2) Inhibits kallikrein activity, and in turn, contact activation of coag cascade
3) Inhibits conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
4) ?secondary preservation of plt fxn
5) Most effective in preventing initial contact activation of blood and plts
6. Evaluation of post-op bleeding
A. <3% require early re-exploration
B. 1-3 u PRBC in uncomplicated cases
C. How much is acceptable? - author >100ml/hr for several hours; see chart from Kirklin
D. Transfusion: indications and risks
1) Hct 24%, Hb 8g/dl may be acceptable - individualize
2) Hepatitis in 7% (mostly hepatitis C)
3) HIV - 0.25% of donor pool is HTLV-III antibody +
E. Differential diagnosis of excessive bleeding
1) Plt ct, PT, PTT in all pts post-op
2) Heparin excess, integrity of coagulation cascade, plts
F. Excess anticoagulants
1) Heparin or FDP
2) Protamine trial - aPTT or ACT will normalize if heparin-related
3) Thrombin time +/- protamine - protamine will not correct FDP-related coagulopathy
G. Thrombocytopenia and plt dysfunction
1) Plt ct <75,000 + bleeding - tx w/8-12U plts
2) Normal plt count, normal coags + bleeding - DDAVP, plts
3) Bleeding time inaccurate post-op
H. Pathologic fibrinolysis
1) All clotting times abnormal, thrombocytopenia, hypofibrinogenemia - tx = transfusions + antifibrinolytics (amicar, aprotinin)
2) Cryoprecipitate (supra normal finbrinogen, vWf, FVIII concentrations) - for fibrinogen <100mg/dL
I. Massive transfusion
1) Plasma protein dilution (1-1.5 blood volume transfusion)
2) Thrombocytopenia most frequent derangement
7. Special hemostatic challenges
A. Jehovah’s Witnesses
1) Tx pre-op w/vitamins, iron, erythropoietin
2) 7% mortality
B. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (5% receiving continuous heparin)
1) Autoantibody to heparin-plt factor 4 complexes
2) Thrombocytopenia (<100,000) resolves within days of heparin withdrawl
3) Dx by plt aggregate testing
4) Strategy: elective - in vitro testing and postpone surgery - ab’s go away
5) Heparin-like substances, LMW heparin have high cross-reactivity
6) Org 10172 - rarely induces aggregation
7) Post-op - D/C all heparin
8. Future trends
A. Specific indications for DDAVP, aprotinin
B. Novel heparins - chemically modified
1) Hirudin - family of direct thrombin inhibitors
C. Anti-plt drugs
1) Ab’s to glycoprotein Iib/IIIa)
2) Synthetic peptides mimic fibrinogen
9. Thromboembolic complications of prosthetic valves
A. INR
1) DVT - 2.0-3.0
2) Prosthetic valves - 2.5-3.5
B. Mechanical valves
1) Thromboembolic rate
a) 0.5-3%/PT-yr - overall
b) MVR = 1-3
c) AVR = 0.5-2
2) Addition of an antiplatelet agent further reduces risk (ASA 160mgQD or dipyridamole 400mgQD)
3) Bleeding complications 0.7-6.3%/pt-yr
C. Bioprosthetic valves
1) Thromboembolism - 2%/pt-yr
2) More common in first 6-12 wks after operation
3) Recommendation - INR 2.0-3.0 for 3 months
4) ? Benefit from long-term ASA
D. Complicating
1) Child-bearing
a) Warfarin is teratogenic, crosses placenta - bad for fetus
b) Self-administration of SC heparin to PTT 1.5-2 x control
c) Antiplt tx alone?
2) Vascular and prosthetic grafts
a) SVG - 75-90% 1-yr patency
b) ASA + dipyridamole helps - ASA early post-op, dipyridamole pre-op
c) ASA alone may be effective

Assisted Circulation

Assisted Circulation
1. Advanced Mechanical Support
A. Indications
1) Post-cardiotomy cardiogenic shock
2) Post-MI cardiogenic shock
3) Post-transplant graft failure
4) High-risk PTCA support
5) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
6) Hypothermia rewarming
7) Alternative to transplantation(clinical trials)
2. Circulatory Support
A. Mechanical cardiac assist
1) Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)
2) Ventricular assist devices (VAD)
3) Cardiopulmonary support (CPS, ECMO)
B. Mechanical cardiac replacement
1) Total artificial hearts (TAH)
C. Others
1) Biologic cardiac assist- cardiomyoplasty
2) Ventricular remodeling
3) Pacing
3. Mechanical Circulatory Support- Characterization
A. Output hemodynamics
1) Pulsatile
2) Non-pulsatile
B. Drive mechanism
1) Pneumatic; electric (hydraulic, mechanical)
C. Configuration
1) TAH, BVAD, RVAD, LVAD
D. Status/availability
1) Approved for market, IDE trials, in development
4. Placement position
A. Orthotopic; heterotopic; extracorporeal
B. Paracorporal; transcutaneous
C. Implantability
1) Fully; partially; not at all
D. Application/ permanence
1) Temporary; bridge-to-transplant, cardiogenic shock; bridge-to-recovery
2) Permanent; alternative-to-transplantation
5. Device Selection for Bridge-to-Transplantation
CriteriaLVADRVADBVADTAH
LV failure++----+
RV failure--++--+
LV & BV failure----++
Unresectable trombus------+
S/P mechanical valve------+
AI (or PI)------+
Irreparable intracardiac shunts------+
Uncorrectable arrhythmias??++
Refractory ischemia, angina------+
Transplant heart rejection------+
Acute MI at cannula site???+
Unresectable cardiac tumor------?
6. Bridge-to-Transplant
A. Problems
B. Cardiovascular
1) Failure on non-supported ventricle
2) Arrhythmias
3) Cyanosis/shunting with PFO
4) Ischemia/angina
C. Systemic
1) Hemorrhage
2) End-organ failure
3) Infection
4) Infection
5) Immune sensitization
6) Compromised quality of life
D. Device related
1) Thromboemboli
2) Obstruction/compression
3) Improper orientation
4) Device infection
5) Device failure
6) Hemorrhage
7) Air entrianment/embolus
8) Hemolysis
E. Results
1) 65-75% successfully bridged (90+% possible)
2) 90+% of those transplanted are discharged
7. Mechanical Circulatory Support– Issues for the future
A. Technological improvements
1) Size, biocompatibility, control, reliability, power and durability
B. Clinical effectiveness
1) Longevity, quality of life, complications, recovery, expertise
C. Cost-effectiveness
1) Of technology and implementation
D. Societal and ethical concerns
1) Allocation of resources; patient populations
E. Permanent Implantation– future NEED
1) By the year 2010
a) Number or patients: 35,000- 70,000 per year for long-term support
b) Devices:10,000-20,000 TAH and 25,000-60,000 VAD
8. Total Artificial Heart
A. Results– Bridge-to-transplant
 TAHControl  
 N%N%
Pateints27--18--
Transplanted2593844
Discharged home2889739
Neurologic-embolic933----
B. Copeland et al
9. Summary
A. May be life saving in selected patients with end-stage heart disease
B. Need for this intervention is increasing with decreasing donor availability
C. May ultimately become an alternative to transplantation

ACABG.....Awake CABG

Awake coronary artery bypass grafting ? a simple and effective surgical procedure, that can be performed everywhere in the world !
Our institution, as a large academic center, has evaluated a variety of surgical techniques for minimally invasive CABG. Starting with MIDCAB operations via left-sided mini thoracotomy in 1996 moving to multiple vessel grafting on the arrested heart via mini thoracotomy using Port Access technology we changed our surgical approach to the more convenient partial lower sternotomy technique. This approach provides several advantages.
A paralell research effort was made evaluating the pros and cons of totally endoscopic robotically assisted technique. As an academic institution we analysed precisely the advantages and disadvantages of awake CABG surgery (ACAB). As a University Hospital performing more than 1800 cardiac procedures yearly, it was not our primary goal to pick up a new technique just for marketing purposes, but rather evaluate the most innovative techniques available in scientific manner.
Since March 2001 we performed ACAB in 68 patients. Besides of MIDCAB operations multiple vessel grafting procedures were performed in 12 patients via complete sternotomy in the awake setting.
With more than a 4 year experience in awake surgery it is my intention to communicate one important message not only to collegues, but also to all coronary patients who have to undergoe some type of revascularisation: ?The taboo of a heart operation as a risky and dangerous procedure has been broken.?���� There are severeal ways to achieve a good and long lasting revascularization of the heart. If we can offer the possibility of receiving a LIMA to LAD graft without standard anesthesia for cardiac surgery, we schould let the patient decide on the procedure! A stent with uncertain long term patency or a life time LIMA to LAD?
Let����s look at the critical issues:
Is there a true benefit of ACAB versus other surgical or interventional techniques?
Yes. For the first time in the history of cardiac surgery we have seen patients, who are able to eat a full lunch 2 hours postoperatively and walk over the ward the same afternoon, pain free,���� and able to go home on the first postop. day. Independent of the activity score that is used, such a fast track mobilization cannot be achieved by any other surgical techniques.
We perform fast track cardiac surgery routinely every day. As a surgeon who has a vast experience with both techniques I would like to state the following: the difference between awake surgery and fast track surgery is like the difference between day and night.
With the aging of the population, nowadays we have more and more elderly patients in their 80ies, who have considerable comorbidity����with impaired pulmonary function. Weaning such patients from the respirator is more and more difficult and dependent on the effects of drugs.
The same procedure performed under general anesthesia is also a good technique. But, the drawbacks are: hemodynamic compromise during induction of anesthesia, mechanical risk vocal chord injury, tracheal injury, malpositioning of the tube with ventilation of the stomach, etc.
Furthermore I have a question for the anesthesiologist: How long does it take to extubate a patient on the table while the next patient is waiting in line? What is the risk of transfer of fast track patients from the OR to the ICU? What about the reintubation rate? What about postoperative nausea and vomiting with the risk of aspiration?
The main aim of awake surgery is to increase the patient comfort during and after surgery. I believe, they have high comfort.
Isn����t it terrible to undergoe CABG and cardiac manuplation in fully awake condition?
Well, it really depends on which pair of eyeglasses you use when you look at this issue. And, dear collegues, it is time to visit your ophthalmologist and get a new pair of eyeglasses and look objectively at the trends, that are taking place in medicine:
What about a pecutaneous implantation of an AICD in a severely sick patients with low LVEF and an inclination for arrythmia. This procedure is nowadays performed in the cath lab even by the cardiologist, who has no surgical background or standby?
What about pace maker implantations in patients with symptomatic bradycardia and the endocardial manipulation during probe placement? Or explantation of pacer maker probe after several years? This procedure is done routinely, even though everybody knows, that in some cases we even observe ventricular perforation with all the consequences?
What about multiple stent implantation in one patient into the coronary vessels every day in many cath labs worldwide in the awake setting. It is done routinely enfacing the possible complications of such procedures in heavy calcified vessels. Sometimes more than 3, 4 even 5 hours procedure times?? What about left main stenting in the awake setting?
Why do interventionalists start to stent carotid arteries in awake patients enfacing a big neurologic risk. Are these guys crazy or are they practising latest state of the art medicine ?
Do not the ortopedic surgeons do arthroscopy and meniscus resection of 2 hours duration in spinal anesthesia? Many neurosurgical procedures are performed also in awake settings. In most of medical branches, the trend is towards patient comfort and ambulatory surgery.
I would like to hear from experienced OPCAB surgeon, if the LIMA-LAD in awake setting more dangerous than the above mentioned procedures?
What happens if the patient has episode of ventricular fibrilattion during the operation?
In such a scenario, with the surgeon and the anesthesiologist by the side, as well as the other members of the OR team, with the chest open, and the heart in your hands, one has the best and most optimal conditions to treat this complication. Internal massage can be started in 2 seconds, and internal defibrillation in 10-15 seconds.
What happens in the same patients undergoes Robotic revascularisation and sustains the same complication? How long before the thorax is open, hand massage and internal defibrillation are employed?
Or in the ICU? Or, even worse, on the normal patient ward? Or during PCI in cath lab in awake setting? It seams to me that cardiologists have more boldness than we, the surgeons.
Would I like to have an Awake CABG?
A classic question, and a classic response: yes. It is to me important the the anastomosis is well performed and the LIMA is nicely harvested. And one more contra-question: would you like to have your 80% stenotic left main stented in awake setting?���� Maybe you don����t like it, but it may well become a routine in a short time.
Some say that Awake CABG is not comfortable for the surgeon?
Many cardiac surgeons emphasize that suturing coronary anastomoses on the arrested heart and under general anesthesia is more comfortable than surgery on the beating heart. They say : ?Why schould I ride a Fiat Punto if I can afford a Mercedes??����
In my opinion surgical comfort is dependent on experience. The more cases one surgeon does in the same manner the safer it gets. I would like to ask one key question to all cardiac surgeons: The times are changing and I think it is time to make a decision what is more important: patient comfort or surgeons comfort.
Comfort is whatever keeps the surgeons adrenalin level in a normal range.
If one center follows the OPCAB philosophy all residents, OR nurses and anesthesiologists consider this bypass technique to be normal and standard.
Knowing that a certain procedure has potential benefit for the patient, we as a cardiac surgical community schould not be ignorant to refuse such innovation. At least we schould look into this new technique systematicly in multicenter trials before we ignore.
As an answer for the colleges: even if I have a Mercedes Maybach in my garage, for LIMA to LAD bypass I would prefer to ride my bicycle.
Come on guys, it just a matter of the perspective, that you take and how you want to look at a certain procedure !
Tayfun Aybek, MD
Cardiothoracic Surgeon
Thoracic and Cardiovascular Surgery
University of Frankfurt
Theodor Stern Kai 7
60590 Frankfurt/Main
GERMANY

What is Minimally Invasive Cardiac Surgery Anyway?

Minimally invasive clearly means many different things to different people. Some people are obsessed by small incisions, to achieve surgical success then they may need much longer bypas times. Others are obsessed by off-pump surgery, in return they may need much larger incisions to achieve adequate re-vascularisation. Do we really understand the trade-offs? Is an on-pump strategy with a very low blood product useage actually worse than an off-pump strategy in a unit that doesn't cell save and therefore has a higher transfusion rate. (yes it is true, you can be on-pump and still have a very low blood product useage. You do have to CARE about your transfusion levels though!) I have been struck looking at photographs of lower hemi-sternotomy that you can achieve, with care, a full sternotomy through the same skin incision. It is difficult but you can do it. Do we all wear headlights? I find it very difficult to use a small incision without a headlight, the corollary could be no head light therefore big incision, could it not?

We have to remember that we do live in a competitive world, cardiologists and patients are pushing us down routes that we consider might not be in the best interests of the patient. Outcome, survival and long term quality of life must be our drivers. Where we do things well we must market. If we truly believe in what we do then we must take up the challenges to demonstrate that what we do, be it, on or off pump, maximally or minimally invasive is of the highest currently attainable quality, but that we continue to strive to improve. If there are problems that we have not yet solved then we must solve them. At the end of the day we will have to transform our skills to meet the challenges as they arise, always realising that we must keep improving as cardiac suregry develops.

The Mediastinum

The Mediastinum

1. Anatomy
A. Compartments
1) Mediastinal borders: thoracic inlet (superior), diaphragm (inferior), sternum (anterior), spine (posterior), pleura (lateral)
2) Anterosuperior compartment is anterior to pericardium
3) Contents include thymus and great vessels
4) Middle, or visceral, compartment is between anterior and posterior pericardial reflections
5) Contents include heart, phrenic nerves, tracheal bifurcation, major bronchi, lymph nodes
6) Posterior, or paravertebral, compartment is posterior to posterior pericardial reflection
7) Contents include esophagus, vagus nerves, sympathetic chains, thoracic duct, descending aorta, and azygos/hemiazygos

2. Mediastinal Conditions
A. Mediastinal Emphysema
1) Introduction of air from esophagus, tracheobronchial tree, neck, or abdomen
2) Causes include penetrating or blunt trauma, or spontaneous mediastinal emphysema
3) Presents as substernal chest pain, crepitation, and pericardial crunching sound
4) May result in tamponade
5) Treat underlying cause; may require chest tube placement for pneumothorax
B. Mediastinitis
1) Occurs in about 1% of patients after median sternotomy
2) Risk factors include prolonged surgery or CPB, re-exploration, wound dehiscence, shock, and use of bilateral internal mammary artery grafts in patients who are older or have diabetes
3) Presents as fever, elevated WBC, and tachycardia
4) Best treatment results with wound debridement and tissue flaps
C. Mediastinal Hemorrhage
1) Caused by trauma, aortic dissection, aneurysm rupture, or surgical procedures
2) May result in mediastinal tamponade, which is more insidious than pericardial tamponade
3) Meticulous hemostasis and adequate chest tube drainage will prevent this syndrome
4) Spontaneous mediastinal hemorrhage can result from mediastinal masses, altered coagulation status, and severe hypertension
D. Superior Vena Cava Obstruction
1) Acute and chronic syndromes occur
2) See CTSN lecture on SVC Syndrome

MEDIASTINAL TUMORS

1. Location

1) Lesions are predictable to some degree predictable
2) Most common tumors are neurogenic (20%), thymomas (20%), primary cysts (20%), lymphomas (13%), and germ-cell tumors (10%)
3) Most are located in anterosuperior compartment (54%), followed by posterior (26%) and middle (20%) tumors

Tumors and Cysts by Location
Anterior Middle Posterior
Thymoma Enterogenous cyst Neurogenic origin
Germ cell tumor Mesothelial cyst Neurenteric cyst
Lymphoma Lymphoma Lymphoma
Hemangioma Thoracic duct cyst
Parathyroid adenoma Granuloma
Thymic cyst Hamartoma
Lipoma
Aberrant thyroid
Lymphangioma

4) A significant portion (25-40%) of mediastinal tumors are malignant
5) Anterosuperior tumors are more likely to be malignant, as are tumors of patients between the ages of 10 and 40
6) Neurogenic tumors and non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are the most common tumors in children

2. Clinical Presentation

1) About two-thirds of patients will have symptoms at the time of diagnosis
2) The absence of symptoms is a reasonably good indicator that a diagnosed tumor is benign
3) Most common symptoms include chest pain, cough, and fever
4) Signs of mechanical compression or invasion of mediastinal structures are more common with malignant tumors
5) Paraneoplastic syndromes are not uncommon and include Cushing's syndrome, thyrotoxicosis, hypertension, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, diarrhea, and gynecomastia

3. Diagnosis
A. CXR will localize the tumor and give information on calcification and relative density of the tumor
B. CT scanning identifies chest wall invasion, multiple masses, and extension into spinal column
C. MRI is more accurate for vascular involvement and intracardiac pathology
D. Echocardiography is useful for patients with middle compartment tumors to localize between intracardiac and pericardial tumors
E. Guided needle biopsy can make a diagnosis of malignancy in 80-90% of patients
F. Mediastinoscopy/mediastinotomy may be necessary to make a diagnosis and establish resectability

4. Thymoma
A. Features
1) Represents 20% of all mediastinal masses in adults
2) Peak incidence is in 3rd to 5th decades of life; rare in children
3) About half are of mixed cell type, followed by epithelial (28%) and lymphocytic (20%) types
4) Between 15 and 65% of thymomas are benign
5) Frequently associated with paraneoplastic syndrome, most commonly myasthenia gravis
6) Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed in 30-50% of patients with a thymoma, and 15% of myasthenia patients will have a thymoma
7) Autoimmune reaction directed against the postsynaptic nicotinic receptors results in skeletal muscle fatigability and weakness, especially in axial muscles
B. Operative Technique
1) Remove all anterior mediastinal tissue and any invasive disease, including involved lung, pleura, pericardium, and SVC/innominate vein
2) Thymic blood supply arises from the internal mammary arteries
3) Patients with stage IIa or higher disease should receive postoperative radiation
4) Chemotherapy is indicated for stage III or IV disease
5) Debulking may be appropriate for stage IV disease, although there is no evidence for increased survival · At 5 years after resection, 25-30% of patients will have complete resolution of myasthenia symptoms and 30-50% will be improved
6) Prognosis is dependent on stage of tumor, not on presence of myasthenia gravis

5. Thymic Carcinoid
A. Most occur in males and about two-thirds are symptomatic
B. Originate from Kulchitsky cells in the thymus, but are not associated with myasthenia gravis or the carcinoid syndrome
C. May cause other paraneoplastic syndromes, however, most commonly Cushing's syndrome (33%)
D. Presence of such syndromes is a very poor prognostic factor
E. Up to 75% will develop local recurrence or metastases
F. Low overall cure rate and mean survival is 3 years

6. Lymphoma
A. Between 40 and 70% of lymphoma patients will have mediastinal involvement during their disease course
B. Only 5-10% of lymphoma patients will have isolated mediastinal disease, and are usually symptomatic
C. Characteristic Hodgkin's lymphoma symptoms are chest pain after alcohol consumption and cyclic Pel-Ebstein fevers
D. Nodular sclerosing and lymphocyte predominance forms of Hodgkin's lymphoma are the most common to cause mediastinal involvement
E. Up to 40% of patients with lymphoblastic non-Hodgkin's lymphoma will have mediastinal disease
F. Surgery is indicated if fine-needle aspiration is inconclusive or to evaluate residual mass after chemotherapy
G. Surgical options include cervical mediastinoscopy, parasternal mediastinotomy, and thoracoscopy

7. Germ Cell Tumors
A. Comprise 15-25% of anterior mediastinal masses
B. Most common in children and young adults
C. Includes teratomas, teratocarcinomas, seminomas, embryonal cell carcinomas, choriocarcinomas, and endodermal cell or yolk-sac tumors
D. Identical to germ cell tumors originating in the gonads, but are not metastatic lesions from primary gonadal tumors
E. About 60% are benign and 40% are malignant
F. Predominantly Benign Tumors
1) Teratomas are complex, multiple tissue element tumors
2) Symptoms are related to mechanical effects
3) Simplest form is the dermoid cyst, which consists of mostly dermal and epidermal tissue
4) More complex teratomas may have well-differentiated bone, cartilage, nerve, or glandular tissue
5) Malignant tumors are differentiated upon histologic identification of embryonic tissue
G. Malignant Tumors
1) Male predominance and most patients are symptomatic
2) 40% are seminomas and 60% are nonseminomas (embryonal cell, choriocarcinoma, yolk-sac, and teratocarcinoma)
Seminomas Non-seminomas
AFP/B-HCG rare 90%
Associated syndromes none Klinefelter's, trisomy 8, 5q deletion
Radiosensitivity High Insensitive
Metastatic behavior Remain intrathoracic Frequently disseminated
Treatment Radiation Cis-platinum chemotherapy
Remission Over 80% CR in 55-60%, PR in 30-35%
5-year survival 50-80% 50-60%
Remission CR=complete PR=partial

3) Initial surgical intervention typically only for diagnosis due to high radiosensitivity of seminomas and frequent metastatic disease in non-seminomas
4) Surgical resection after induction of chemotherapy may have a role in non-seminomatous tumors

8. Endocrine Tumors
A. Intrathoracic Thryoid
1) 80% are substernal extensions of a cervical goiter
2) True intrathoracic thyroid (derives blood supply from thoracic vessels) comprises only 1% of all mediastinal tumors
3) More common in women and in the 6th to 7th decades, most are adenomas
4) Usually presents with tracheal or esophageal compression; thyrotoxicosis is uncommon
5) I-131 scanning should be done to identify presence of functioning cervical thyroid tissue before resecting these tumors
6) Resect substernal extensions through a cervical incision and true intrathoracic lesions through the chest
B. Parathyroid
1) Most are adenomas and are found by the superior pole of the thymus due to common embryogenesis from the third branchial cleft
2) Symptoms are usually due to hyperparathyroid syndrome
3) Parathyroid cysts are not usually hormonally active

9. Primary Cysts
A. Bronchogenic Cysts
1) Most common primary cysts in the mediastinum (5%)
2) Arise from ventral foregut and are usually located in the subcarinal or right paratracheal region/a>
3) Two-thirds are asymptomatic; symptoms include tracheobronchial or esophageal compression and infection from tracheobronchial communication
4) Complete excision is recommended, even if asymptomatic, to prevent late complications
B. Esophageal/Enteric Cysts
1) Comprise 3-5% of mediastinal tumors
2) More common in children and tend to occur in the lower third of the esophagus
3) Dysphagia is the most common symptom
4) CT scanning is essential in patients with vertebral anomalies to evaluate for possible spinal cord involvement (neuroenteric cyst)
5) Avoid endoscopic biopsy, as this may cause cyst perforation and infection
6) Complete excision is indicated; a thoracoscopic approach can be used for uninfected cysts
C. Pleuropericardial Cysts
1) Uncommon, classically occur at the pericardiophrenic angles, 70-80% on the right side
2) Usually asymptomatic and may communicate with the pericardium
3) Guided needle aspiration is the initial therapy of choice
4) Surgical excision is indicated if the cyst recurs or if the diagnosis is in doubt

10. Neurogenic Tumors
A. Etiology and Diagnosis · Most posterior mediastinal masses are of neurogenic origin
1) 95% of these tumors in adults are benign and are usually asymptomatic
2) In children, most neurogenic tumors are malignant
3) Classified according to cell origin; most arise from intercostal nerve or sympathetic chain
Intercostal nerve Sympathetic ganglia Paraganglia cells
Neurofibroma Ganglioma Paraganglioma
Neurilemoma Ganglioneuroblastoma (pheochromocytoma)
Neurofibrosarcoma Neuroblastoma

4) Neurilemomas are the most common and originate from Schwann's cells
5) These are encapsulated tumors which stain with S-100 protein immunostain
6) Two primary types: Antoni A (organized pallisading pattern) and Antoni B (loose reticular pattern)
7) Neurofibromas originate from peripheral nerve
8) Form a pseudocapsule and have more variability with the S-100 stain
9) Both types of tumors are associated with von Recklinghausen's disease, although more commonly neurofibromas
10) Chest CT is sufficient for diagnosis of most of these tumors, and MRI should be used when an intraspinal component is present

B. Operative Indications
1) Benign tumors (neurofibroma, neurilemoma, ganglioneuroma) can be effectively treated with local excision
2) Combined thoracic and neurosurgical approach is indicated for tumors with intraspinal extension
3) Recurrence is rare for benign tumors
4) Local recurrence is common for malignant tumors and overall prognosis is poor

Esophageal Diagnostic Procedures

Esophageal Diagnostic Procedures

1. Definition
A. There are several procedures utlitized for the diagnosis of esophageal disease, and the approach must be tailored to the specific disease entity. Contrast swallow and esophagoscopy are commonly used for most patients with esophageal disorders, with CT scanning, endoscopic ultrasound, and reflux testing reserved for more specific indications. MRI and nuclear medicine scans may have additional limited roles.

2. Esophagoscopy
A. Indications
1) Dysphagia, odynophagia, regurgitation, hematemesis, chest pain, foreign body ingestion, or history of traumatic esophageal tear
2) Should usually be preceded by contrast swallow/cineesophagogram to help localize the site of disease
3) Contraindications include aortic aneurysm (can rupture), recurrent nerve paralysis, esophageal diverticulum (can perforate blindly), corrosive strictures (can perforate - stop when you see the stricture), and kyphoscoliosis (may be impossible)
4) Use rigid technique when Zenker's diverticulum or disease of the upper third is suspected, as flexible esophagoscopy is done blindly and can perforate in these areas
B. Technique - Rigid Esophagoscopy
1) Topical or general anesthesia may be used; general anesthesia generally provides better relaxation, lowering the risk of perforation
2) The 9mm scope is adequate for most adult patients
3) The patient is positioned supine with head and shoulders over the end of the table
4) Introduce the esophagoscope into the right side of the mouth and rest the shaft on your left thumb
5) The scope is advanced behind the right arytenoid cartilage into the right pyriform fossa
6) Lower the patient's head as the scope is advanced past the cricopharyngeus
7) Lower the head further and move to the right to pass through the gastroesophageal junction
8) Full examination is done on withdrawal, as folds of mucosa may hide pathology during advancement of the scope
C. Technique - Flexible Esophagoscopy
1) Topical anesthesia with sediation is usually adequate
2) The patient is placed in the left lateral position
3) The esophagoscope is introduced blindly with gentle pressure as the patient swallows
4) Insufflation of air distends the esophagus for complete visualization
5) Advance scope into upper stomach and perform thorough examination upon withdrawal
D. Complications
1) Perforation occurs in 0.1-0.25% of patients
2) Most commonly occurs posteriorly at the upper opening of the esophagus when forceful pressure is applied against the cricopharyngeus
3) Other sites include the diaphragmatic hiatus and diverticuli
4) Perforation can also occur after deep biopsy, forceful dilation of strictures, or during removal of foreign bodies
5) Chest pain after esophagoscopy is an indication of perforation and should be promptly evaluated
E. Findings in Disease
Reflux Esophagitis
Stage I localized spots of erythema, some with exudate
Stage II confluent areas of erythema
Stage III circumferential areas of erythema, friable, bleeds readily when touched
Stage IV deep ulcers, stenoses and columnar metaplasia

1) Barrett's esophagus: stratified squamous epithelium replaced by columnar epithelium and may become discrete ulcer; biopsy should be performed to look for malignancy
2) Stenosis: congenital stenoses usually have normal mucosa; acquired stenoses are usually associated with esophagitis or ulcers
3) Corrosive esophagitis: acute inspection shows edematous, friable walls which are easily perforated; stop at first area of injury
4) Diverticulum: exclude ulcers and neoplasms at the site of the diverticulum
5) Varices: range from small bluish elevations to large dilated veins at the lower end of the esophagus--commonly found in cirrhotics
6) Hiatal hernia: redundant folds in the lower esophagus and lack of diaphragmatic support are characteristic only in true hiatal hernia
7) Achalasia: markedly dilated, inflamed esophagus with thickened walls; GE junction has normal tone but may be hard to negotiate
8) Carcinoma: typically large fungating mass that bleeds easily, less commonly a smooth stenosis with edematous mucosa. Microinvasive carcinoma presents as slight discolorations of the mucosa, known as leukoplakia or erythroplakia.
9) Benign neoplasms: leiomyomas, fibromas, and lipomas are all covered with normal mucosa

3. Endoscopic Ultrasound
A. Particularly applicable in defining tumors and varices
B. May become useful in staging of esophageal cancer
C. 5 layers are identified: mucosa, deep mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and adventitia
D. Extension of tumors into periesophageal structures and lymph nodes can be evaluated
E. Carcinomas appear as indistinct, echo-poor lesions; varices appear as round, echo-poor lesions

4. Gastroesophageal Reflux Evaluation
Note: Radiographic tests for GE reflux are not highly reliable for pathologic reflux, as up to 25% of patients will have reflux without associated pathology. Such tests can rule out patients with no reflux, however.
A. Manometry
1) Intraluminal pressures are measured using a continuous infusion catheter system while the patient is lying supine
2) This catheter is withdrawn at 1-cm intervals to obtain resting pressures
3) The catheter is reinserted, and pressures measured after swallowing at 1-cm intervals
4) This test is essential in delineating the various esophageal motility disorders
B. pH Reflux Test
1) A pH probe is placed 5 cm above the GE junction
2) 200 to 300 ml of 0.1N HCl is instilled in the stomach
3) A fall in pH below 4.0 during various maneuvers indicates GE reflux
C. Acid Perfusion Test
1) The distal esophagus is perfused in an alternating fashion with 0.1N HCl and saline
2) The test is positive if atypical chest pain occurs during acid perfusion and resolves during saline perfusion
3) High rates of false positivity and false negativity make the test somewhat unreliable
D. 24-hour pH Monitoring
1) a pH probe is placed 5cm above the GE junction
2) The patient records any symptoms and pH changes are monitored constantly over 24 hours
3) Analysis includes percentage of time pH was less than 4.0, and percentage of time patient was upright and supine
4) The number of reflux episodes, the duration of the episodes, and the longest episode of reflux are also evaluated
5) This test gives the most objective evidence of reflux

5. Therapeutic Esophagoscopy
A. Removal of Foreign Bodies
1) Rigid esophagoscope is best
2) Most common sites are just below the cricopharyngeus and at the diaphragm
3) Sharp objects carry the highest risk of perforation
B. Dilation of Strictures
1) Savary-Gilliard dilators are the safest
2) A metal guidewire is passed through the stricture using the esophagoscope
3) The stricture is then dilated using progressively larger dilators passed over the guidewire
4) Retrograde dilation may also be done using Tucker dilators over a string passed through a gastrostomy and out the mouth
C. Corrosive Esophagitis
1) Esophagoscopy should be performed to confirm the burn, but do not pass the injured area
2) Dilation can be performed after burn have healed (usually 3-4 weeks) if strictures have formed
D. Carcinoma
1) Palliative dilation usually is only temporary, and should be followed with either laser resection or stenting
2) The Nd:YAG laser can be used from above or below to core a passage through tumor and permit swallowing
3) Brachytherapy can be applied after endoscopic dilation for inoperable carcinoma
E. Achalasia
1) Dilation can be performed of the GE junction if surgical myotomy is contraindicated
2) Perforation, however, is a definite risk and can present as either chest or abdominal pain
F. Variceal bleeding
1) Electrocautery and laser therapy of bleeding varices do not prevent rebleeding
2) Sclerotherapy is probably best and obliterates current varices; however, rebleeding occurs in 40% of patients

6. Radiographic Examples
A. Schatzki's ring
B. Achalasia
C. Diffuse Esophageal Spasm
D. Leiomyoma
E. Carcinoma

Echocardiography

Echocardiography

1. High frequency ultrasound = 2.0 - 7.5 MHz
A. Adults = 2.0 - 2.5 MHz
B. Pediatric = 3.0 - 5.0 MHz
C. TEE = 3.5 - 7.5 MHz
D. M-mode "ice pick view"
E. 2D sector scanning
F. Doppler effect
G. Color flow imaging

2. Standard Transducer Positions
A. Transthoracic long
B. Transthoracic 90o short axis
C. Parasternal long
D. Parasternal short
E. Apical
F. Subcostal 4 chamber
G. Subcostal ventricular septum
H. Suprasternal
I. Transesophageal

3. Doppler Effect
A. Sound frequency increases as sound source moves toward observer; frequency decreases as source moves away.
B. Ultrasound of known frequency is transmitted to heart or blood vessel.
C. Moving RBC's reflect ultrasound waves at altered frequency depending on direction RBC's are moving.
D. Frequency shift is used to estimate blood flow velocity.

4. Color Flow Imaging
A. Doppler flow velocity sampled at multiple sites (gates)
B. Frequency shift converted to color scheme
1) Blood flow toward transducer = RED
2) Blood flow away = BLUE
3) Turbulence (multiple directions) = GREEN
4) High frequency = WRAP AROUND OR ALIASING

5. Hemodynamic Assessment by Doppler
A. Doppler shift measures blood flow velocity
B. Flow velocity converted to pressure gradient by Bernoulli equation
1) DP = 4 x (V2)2
C. Sum of flow velocity during ejection period = time velocity integral (TVI)
1) Used with cross sectional area to calculate flow
D. Valve area
1) Continuity equation
2) Pressure half-time
E. Flow velocity across a regurgitant valve is related to intracardiac pressure

6. Typical 2D ECHO Patterns
A. Normal Anatomy
1) Four Chamber (RealVideo clip)
B. Normal Valve Anatomy
1) Tricuspid (RealVideo clip)
2) Mitral (RealVideo clip)
3) Aortic (RealVideo clip)
C. Pathologic variations
1) Valvular congenital aortic stenosis
2) Subvalvular congenital aortic stenosis (RealVideo clip)
3) Ebstein's Anomaly
4) Tricuspid atresia
5) Atrial septal defect
6) Ventricular septal defect (RealVideo clip)
7) Cor triatriatum
8) Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
9) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
10) Single ventricle
11) Transposition of great arteries
12) Aortic endocarditis (RealVideo clip)
13) Mitral endocarditis (RealVideo clip)
14) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (RealVideo clip)
15) Myxoma (RealVideo clip)
16) Aortic dissection
17) Coarctation
18) Congenital mitral stenosis (RealVideo clip)
19) Congenital rheumatic mitral disease (RealVideo clip)
20) Ruptured mitral chordae (RealVideo clip)

7. Intraoperative
A. Ensure optimal result of reconstructive cardiac surgery
1) Cardiac valve
2) Congenital defect repair
B. Minimize CV complications during operation
1) Air embolism
2) Cardiac wall motion (value controversial)
C. Trouble-shooting the hemodynamically unstable patient

Developmental Anatomy

Developmental Anatomy

1. Basic Principles
A. Cardiovascular system is first functional system in embryo
B. Blood circulation by 3 weeks (21 days)
C. Heart develops 3-8 weeks
D. Critical period for anomalies 3-6 weeks

2. Heart Development
A. Endocardial tubes fuse to form heart tube (21 days)
B. Heart begins to beat (22 days)
C. Heart folding - 21-22 days, folding - 23-28 days
1) D loop, L loop
2) Bulboventricular loop --- future ventricles
3) Cellular differentiation
4) Bulbus cordis - conus cordis --- RVOT
5) Truncus arteriosus --- great vessels

3. Atrial Septation
A. Septum primum forms from roof of atrium
1) Ostium primum - closed by fusion of septum to endocardial cushion
2) Ostium secundum - coalescence of fenestrations
B. A-V canal divided by endocardial cushions
C. Septum secundum grows down from roof of atrium
1) Fuses with endocardial cushions
2) Overlaps ostium secundum
3) Foramen ovale remains open until after birth

4. Ventricular Septation and A-V Valves
A. Muscular interventricular septum forms
B. Fusion of ventricular septum with endocardial cushion must await partition of truncus arteriosus
C. Undermining of myocardium forms valve leaflets
D. Papillary muscles and chordae tendinea derived from ventricular myocardium

5. Clinical Correlates - Septal Defects
A. Atrial septal defect
1) Ostium secundum = excess resorption of septum primum or inadequate development of septum secundum (foramen ovale defect)
2) Ostium primum = septum primum fails to fuse with endocardial cushion (low defect with semilunar shape, right above the AV valves)
B. Ventricular septal defect
1) Failure of membranous portion to develop from extension of endocardial cushion to fuse with truncoconal septum
2) Malalignment
3) Muscular defect = resorption of septum

6. Truncoconal Septation
A. Bulbar-truncal ridges form truncoconal or aorticopulmonary septum
B. Streaming of blood flow may account for spiral configuration of truncoconal septum
C. Bulbar-truncal ridges fuse to divide truncus arteriosus (aorta and pulmonary artery)
D. Fused bulbar-truncal ridges extend to fuse with endocardial cushion and muscular septum to partition ventricular septum · Semilunar valves derived from truncoconal swellings

7. Clinical Correlates - Truncoconal Septation
A. Truncus arteriosus = defective fusion of bulbotruncal ridges
B. Transposition of Great Arteries = failure of truncoconal spiral
C. Tetralogy of Fallot = unequal division of conus cordis
D. Semilunar valve stenosis = failure of development of truncoconal swellings or unequal partition

8. Aortic Arch Derivatives
A. Truncus arteriosus
1) Proximal ascending aorta
2) Main pulmonary artery
B. Aortic sac
1) Ascending aorta, 1/2 arch
2) Brachiocephalic artery

9. Aortic Arch Derivatives Part II
A. Aortic arches
1) 1, 2, 5, R6 disappear
2) 3 => carotid arteries
3) 4 => mid arch, R proximal subclavian artery
4) 6 => RPA and ductus arteriosus
B. Dorsal aorta
1) Left => descending aorta
2) Right => R distal subclavian, distal disappears
3) Internal carotid arteries

10. Clinical Correlates - Aortic Arch Derivatives
A. Coarctation of the Aorta = probably related to ductus incorporation into the aortic wall
B. Fetal blood flow and resorption of the dorsal aorta may also play a role
C. Double aortic arch = failure of right dorsal arch to disappear
D. Abnormal origin R subclavian artery = R4 arch and R dorsal aorta disappear, leaving 7 intersegmental artery originating as fourth branch of aorta behind esophagus

11. Fetal Circulation
A. Three shunts permit most of the blood to bypass liver and lungs
1) Ductus venosus --- Ligamentum teres, venosum
2) Foramen ovale -- Fossa ovalis
3) Ductus arteriosus -- Ligamentum arteriosus
B. Shunts close after birth and become ligamentous

CARDIAC ANATOMY

CARDIAC ANATOMY

1. Surface Anatomy
A. Right atrium anterior and to the right of left atrium
B. Left atrium a midline structure
C. Right ventricle anterior and to the right of left ventricle
D. Pulmonary artery anterior and to the left of aorta
E. Coronary arteries on surface follow A-V groove and interventricular septum

2. Cardiac Chambers
A. Right atrium
1) Wide based blunt appendage, crista terminalis separates trabeculated from non-trabeculated portion
B. Left atrium
1) Long, narrow appendage, smooth walls
C. Right ventricle
1) Coarsely trabeculated inlet/sinus, outlet portion
D. Left ventricle
1) Fine trabeculations inlet/sinus and outlet portions

3. Right Atrium
A. SVC - IVC
B. Crista terminalis
C. Coronary sinus
D. Tricuspid valve
E. Fossa ovalis
F. Triangle of Koch
G. Tendon of Todaro
H. Inferior isthmusTendon of Todaro

4. Right Ventricle
A. Inlet portion supports tricuspid valve
B. Trabecular sinus portion (main body of the RV)
1) Moderator band
2) Medial papillary muscle (of conus)
C. Outlet portion
1) Infundibular (Conal) septum (separates semilunar valves)
2) Crista supra ventricularis - seperates sinus (chamber) from outlet portion of the ventricle
3) Septal band (trabecula septomarginalis)
4) Parietal band (ventriculo-infundibular fold)
5) Pulmonary valve

5. Left Ventricle
A. Thick wall
B. Inlet portion supports mitral valve
C. Anterior and posterior papillary muscles
D. Outlet portion beneath aortic valve

6. Conduction System
A. Sinoatrial node - anterolateral RA
B. Interatrial conduction pathways - not well defined and somewhat controversial
C. Atrioventricular node - triangle of Koch
D. Bundle of His - AV node to membranous septum, usually located on the inferior/posterior wall of the membranous septum
E. Left bundle branch - left ventricular septal surface into multiple branches
F. Right bundle branch - below medial papillary muscle via septal and moderator bands to anterior papillary muscle
G. Inferior isthmus (right atrium)
H. Bachman's bundle (left atrium)
See Arrhythmia- Tachycardia
See Arrhythmia- Bradycardia

7. Cardiac Valves
A. Aortic valve wedged between mitral and tricuspid, pulmonary valve separated
B. Mitral valve
1) Anterior leaflet wide, short, 1/3 of annular circumference
2) Posterior leaflet narrow, long, 2/3 of annular circumference
3) Papillary muscles and chordae tendineae
C. Tricuspid valve
1) Anterior, posterior, septal leaflets
D. Aortic and pulmonary valves
1) 3 cusp, semilunar
2) Sinuses of Valsalva
3) Nodulus Aranti and lunulae

8. Left Ventricular Outflow Tract
A. Semilunar aortic valve
B. Fibrous annulus is not a ring
C. Interleaflet triangles
D. Aortoventricular junction
E. Sinuses of Valsalva
F. Sinotubular junction (sinus rim) = junction of sinus of Valsalva and ascending aorta
G. Posterior commissure relates to mid point of anterior leaflet of mitral valve

9. Ventricular Band (Torrent-Guasp)
A. Biventricular myocardial band extending from pulmonary artery to aorta
B. Two loops: basal and apical
C. Double helix derived from spiral fold
D. Apex has figure-8 configuration

10. Coronary Arteries
A. Right and left coronary arteries
B. Dominant pattern determined by origin of posterior descending
C. Dominance is usually right or balanced; 10-15% prevalence of left dominance
D. Balanced pattern occurs when there is no particular dominance
E. Septal blood supply 2/3 left anterior descending, 1/3 posterior descending
F. Sinus node artery from RCA - 55%
G. AV node artery from U bend at crux, just beyond the takeoff of the PDA if circulation is right dominant

11. Descriptive Variables
A. Situs of thoracic viscera and atria
1) This is best identified from the bronchial anatomy (3 bronchi on the right, 2 on the left)
2) Solitus, inversus, ambiguous
B. Situs of ventricles
1) Usual, concordant, D-loop, right-handedness
2) Inverted, discordant, L-loop, left-handedness
C. Dominance of ventricles
1) Balanced (usual), right (left small), left (right small)

12. Descriptive Variables
A. Cardiac connections
1) Atrioventricular and ventriculoarterial
2) Concordant or discordant (transposed)
B. Cardiac and arterial position
1) Cardiac apex; levo-, dextro-, mesocardia
2) Great arteries; transposition, malposition
3) The patient can have completely normal cardiac structures and still have dextrocardia - this only refers to the position of the cardiac apex
C. Conventional diagnosis; e.g., tetralogy of Fallot

Extended Outline

1. Cardiac Skeleton
A. Fibrous body
B. Right and left trigones

2. Coronary Arteries
A. Right and Left coronary arteries originate from proximal aorta via respective ostia
B. Common branches from main coronary arteries
1) Left main-- diagonal branches
2) Left anterior descending-- septal and diagonal arteries
3) Circumflex-- marginal arteries (and PDA in left dominant hearts)
4) Right coronary artery-- acute marginal, AV nodal, sinus node arteries (and PDA in right dominant hearts)

3. Cardiovascular Silhouette
A. Mediastinal Border
1) Right atrium
2) Superior vena cava
B. Left Border
1) Aortic arch
2) Pulmonary trunk
3) Left atrial appendage
4) Left ventricle

Surgical Anatomy Of The Mitral Valve

The mitral apparatus includes the leaflets, annulus, chordae tendineae, papillary muscles, and left ventricle.

A. Leaflets

* The mitral valve has two leaflets, the anterior (aortic) and posterior (mural) leaflets.
* The leaflets are attached directly to the mitral annulus and to the papillary muscles by primary and secondary chordae.

1.Anterior mitral leaflet:

* Is in direct continuity with the fibrous skeleton of the heart.
* This leaflet is contiguous with the left and noncoronary cusps of the aortic valve and the area beneath the intervening aortic commissure, termed the fibrous subaortic curtain.
* Although the anterior leaflet occupies only 35% to 45% of the annular circumference, its leaflet area is almost identical to that of the posterior leaflet.

2.Posterior Leaflet:

* Has two variable indentations or clefts that divide the posterior leaflet into three scallops: the largest or middle scallop, the posteromedial scallop, and the anterolateral scallop.
* Fan-shaped chordae insert into and define the clefts between the individual posterior scallops.
* Motion of the posterior leaflet is more restricted than that of the anterior leaflet; however, both mitral leaflets contribute importantly to effective valve closure.


The surface of the mitral leaflet is divided into three zones corresponding to areas of chordal insertion and leaflet coaptation.

1. The rough zone: is the leading edge of the anterior and posterior mitral leaflets. This zone is the contact surface of the mitral leaflets during systole.
2. The clear zone: is peripheral to the rough zone and represents most of the body of the leaflet; this portion of the mitral valve billows into the atrium during ventricular contraction.
3. The basal zone: between the clear zone and the annulus, receives the insertion of the basal chordae tendineae (tertiary chordae), which originate directly from the trabeculae of the left ventricle. The basal zone is found only on the posterior leaflet.


B. Annulus

* The mitral annulus is the site of leaflet attachment to muscular fibers of the atrium and ventricle.
* The annulus is flexible and decreases in diameter during each systolic contraction by approximately 26%.
* The orifice of the mitral valve also changes shape, from elliptical during ventricular systole to circular during late diastole. This flexibility increases leaflet coaptation during systole and maximizes orifice area during diastole.
* Anteriorly, the annulus is attached to the fibrous skeleton of the heart. This limits its flexibility and its capacity to dilate with mitral regurgitation (MR). The posterior annulus is more flexible and is not attached to rigid surrounding structures. This accounts for the clinical observation that dilation of the annulus occurs posteriorly with MR.
* Important Anatomic Landmarks:

1. The circumflex coronary artery courses laterally around the mitral annulus in the posterior atrioventricular groove.
2. The coronary sinus runs more medially in the same groove.
3. The artery to the atrioventricular node, usually a branch of the right coronary artery, runs a course parallel and close to the annulus of the anterior leaflet near the posteromedial commissure.
4. The aortic valve is situated between the anterior and posterior fibrous trigones. The bundle of His is located near the posterior trigone.


C. Chordae Tendineae

* The chordae tendineae are chords of fibrous connective tissue that attach the mitral leaflets to either the papillary muscles or the left ventricular free wall.
* They often subdivide and interconnect before they attach to the leaflets. The chordae are divided into:

1. Primary chordae: attach directly to the fibrous band running along the free edge of the leaflets. These chordae ensure that the contact surfaces (rough zone) of the leaflets coapt without leaflet prolapse or flail.
2. Secondary chordae: attach to the ventricular surface of the leaflets at the junction between the rough and clear zones. These chordae contribute to ventricular function. Secondary chordae enable the ventricle to contract in an efficient cone-shaped fashion; when secondary chordae are excised, the left ventricle assumes a globular shape.
3. Tertiary chordae: are unique to the posterior leaflet. They arise as strands directly from the left ventricular wall or from small trabeculae to insert into the ventricular surface of the leaflet near the annulus.


D. Papillary Muscles

* The anterolateral and posteromedial papillary muscles each supply chordae tendineae to both leaflets.
* The two groups of papillary muscles subtend the anterolateral and posteromedial commissures and arise from the junction of the apical and middle thirds of the ventricular wall.
* The anterolateral papillary muscle receives a dual blood supply from the anterior descending coronary artery and either a diagonal branch or a marginal branch of the left circumflex artery.
* The posteromedial papillary muscle receives its blood supply from either the left circumflex artery or a distal branch of the right coronary artery.
* Because of the single blood supply to the posteromedial papillary muscle, infarction of the posteromedial papillary muscle is much more common.


E. Left Ventricle

* The posterior left ventricular wall and papillary muscles play an important role in leaflet coaptation and valve competence.
* Papillary muscles are aligned parallel to the ventricular wall and attach via chordae to the free edges of the valve leaflets. These muscles project from the trabeculae and may be single, bifid, or a row of muscles arising from the ventricular wall.
* During isovolumetric contraction the mitral leaflets are pulled downward and together by this interaction. Ventricular dilatation may affect the alignment and tension on the papillary muscles and valve competence.

Pulmonary Physiology

Pulmonary Physiology

1. Preoperative evaluation and perioperative care of a patient includes
A. Tissue diagnosis of primary disease and decision if an operative procedure is indicated
B. Assessment of patient’s general condition
C. Preoperative preparation and postoperative care
The Evaluation of pulmonary function includes assessment of cardiac function, the oxygen carrying red cells, the lungs, chest wall and ventilatory muscular function

2. Lung physiology
A. Well suited for efficient exchange of O2 and CO2 with a large surface area and low perfusion pressure (300 million alveoli)
B. Gas exchange controlled by two pumps- the right ventricle and the chest cage-diaphragm
C. Elastic recoil of lungs ejects gas and fibrous skeleton maintains airway patency
D. Clinical evaluation of pulmonary function
1) history and physical- exercise tolerance
2) CXR, ABG
3) simple spirometry
4) vital capacity (FVC)- total exhaled volume
E. FEV1- forced expiratory volume at one second- indication of flow
1) FEV1 1000-2000 ml adequate for surgery
2) FEV1 800 ml or less preclude surgical resection
D. Restrictive disease- vital capacity, inspiratory and expiratory reserves are diminished- can result from diseases of the lung, pleura, chest cage and muscles -kyphoscoliosis, ARDS, pleural effusions or fibrosis Funcitonal residual volume is decreased limited capacity to expand lungs but no difficulty emptying lungs
E. Obstructive Disease- lung elastic recoil decreases, compromising the force

of exhalation - most common form in clinical practice usually due to smoking, damaged alveoli can lead to pulmonary HTN unsupported airways leads to airway trapping and atelectasis

3. Ventilatory Pump and Work of Breathing
A. Ventilatory pump consist of the thoracic cage and ventilatory muscles
B. The ventilatory pump is a suction pump which expands the chest cage to pull air into the lungs
C. Dyspnea signals that the work required of the ventilatory muscles has reached

a level that exceeds the comfortable capacity of the patient
D. Thoracotomy creates a region of non-contractile muscles which lowers tidal

volume and increases respiratory rate
E. Several disease processes can cause ventilatory pump failure
1) central depression
2) muscle paralysis
3) fatigue
4) mechanical defects in the thoracic cage-trauma, post-surgical
a) failure of ventilatory pump leads to atelectasis and decreased lung compliance
b) functional residual volume decreases with loss of functional alveoli
c) post-operative pain control- epidural can help prevent splinting and therefore atelectasis

4. Work capacity of ventilatory muscles are trainable- sedentary patients will poor muscle function as compared to active patients
A.Fluid Exchange and Lung Water blood circulating through normal lung capillaries at normal rates and pressure causes a net fluid movement from the capillaries into the lung interstitium.The filtered fluid is picked up by the lymphatics and returned to the circulation Management of fluid therapy is critical in post-operative pulmonary resection patients since this fluid balance is disrupted
1) increased filtration post-operatively
2) decreased capillary bed and lymphatic mass
3) increased cardiac output
4) must carefully titrate fluid balance especially in pneumonectomy patients

5. Ventilation -Perfusion Incoordination effective gas transfer relies on the coordination of ventilation and perfusion
A. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch occurs post-operatively
B. V/Q mismatch is the most common form of post-operative hypoxemia
C. Usually secondary to the development of atelectasis

6. Shunt Fraction
A. Determines the fraction of blood ejected by the left ventricle that has no gas exchange in the lungs
1) Patients with a shunt fraction > 0.15 to 0.20 are vulnerable to a low C.O.
2) Tissue oxygen delivery falls
3) Pulmonary artery catheter should be placed to optimize C.O.

7. One Lung Anesthesia
A. Procedure of choice for pulmonary resection
B. Videothoracoscopy has increased demand
C. Unventilated lung is perfused and is a source of an intrapulmonary shunt that can lead to hypoxemia
D. Usually ventilated on 100 % oxygen

8. Pneumonectomy lung reduction surgery
A. Derived from the observation of chest wall adaptation in lung transplant patients
B. Bilateral stapling of peripheral lung tissue to diminish lung volumes
C. Reinforced with bovine pericardial strips to prevent leaks
D. Improvement in symptoms and FEV1
E. Improves diaphragmatic motion

9. Summary of Evaluation of Gas Exchange Function- background facts for assessing pulmonary function are as follows:
A. There is a large reserve in normal individuals
B. Condition of the ventilatory muscles depends on the physical state of the patient
C. As lung volume falls, airways in dependent areas of the lung close
D. With aging and smoking, airways close at higher lung volumes
E. V/Q mismatch occurs with airway closure
F. V/Q mismatch requires increased alveolar ventilation to maintain the same amount of gas exchange
G. Spirometry measures the volumes o flung and the ability to move air
H. PaCO2 is an indicator of adequacy of ventilation
I. PaO2 is an indicator of adequacy of oxygenation

10. Pulmonary Assessing Pre-operative Function
A. History and physical examination
B. CXR
C. Laboratory data
D. Room air arterial blood gas
E. Pulmonary function tests
1) FEV1- 1000- 2000 ml acceptable
2) MVV if > 50 L/min acceptable, if < 28 L/min severely decreased function 3) split-lung function test predicts post-operative FEV1 based on ventilation scan on each lung if post-operative FEV1 > 800 ml then patient will tolerate pneumonectomy e.g. patient with left lower lung tumor, FEV1 1.72
F. Liters with split function of 62 % on right and 38 % on left would predict a post-operative FEV1 of 1.0 liters for left pneumonectomy if PCO2 45 then the patient is not a candidate for resection unless a medical regimen improves gas exchange
1) cessation of smoking
2) bronchodilators
3) appropriate antibiotics for bronchitis
4) exercise